Effective 7/01/2023 – 6/30/2027
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SUBELEMENT G1 – COMMISSION’S RULES [5 Exam Questions – 5 Groups]
G1A – General class control operator frequency privileges; primary and secondary allocations
G1A01 (C) [97.301(d)]
On which HF and/or MF amateur bands are there portions where General class licensees cannot transmit?
C. 80 meters, 40 meters, 20 meters, and 15 meters
G1A02 (B) [97.305]
On which of the following bands is phone operation prohibited?
B. 30 meters
G1A03 (B) [97.305]
On which of the following bands is image transmission prohibited?
B. 30 meters
G1A04 (D) [97.303(h)]
Which of the following amateur bands is restricted to communication only on specific channels, rather than frequency ranges?
D. 60 meters
G1A05 (A) [97.301(d)]
On which of the following frequencies are General class licensees prohibited from operating as control operator?
A. 7.125 MHz to 7.175 MHz
G1A06 (C) [97.303]
Which of the following applies when the FCC rules designate the amateur service as a secondary user on a band?
C. Amateur stations must not cause harmful interference to primary users and must accept interference from primary users
G1A07 (D) [97.305(a)]
On which amateur frequencies in the 10-meter band may stations with a General class control operator transmit CW emissions?
D. The entire band
G1A08 (B) [97.301(b)]
Which HF bands have segments exclusively allocated to Amateur Extra licensees?
B. 80 meters, 40 meters, 20 meters, and 15 meters
G1A09 (C) [97.301(d)]
Which of the following frequencies is within the General class portion of the 15-meter band?
C. 21300 kHz
G1A10 (D) [97.205(b)]
What portion of the 10-meter band is available for repeater use?
D. The portion above 29.5 MHz
G1A11 (B) [97.301]
When General class licensees are not permitted to use the entire voice portion of a band, which portion of the voice segment is available to them?
B. The upper frequency portion
G1B – Antenna structure limitations; good engineering and good amateur practice; beacon operation; prohibited transmissions; retransmitting radio signals
G1B01 (C) [97.15(a)]
What is the maximum height above ground for an antenna structure not near a public use airport without requiring notification to the FAA and registration with the FCC?
C. 200 feet
G1B02 (A) [97.203(b)]
With which of the following conditions must beacon stations comply?
A. No more than one beacon station may transmit in the same band from the same station location
G1B03 (A) [97.3(a)(9)]
Which of the following is a purpose of a beacon station as identified in the FCC rules?
A. Observation of propagation and reception
G1B04 (C) [97.113(c)]
Which of the following transmissions is permitted for all amateur stations?
C. Occasional retransmission of weather and propagation forecast information from US government stations
G1B05 (B) [97.111((5)(b)]
Which of the following one-way transmissions are permitted?
B. Transmissions to assist with learning the International Morse code
G1B06 (D) [97.15(b), PRB-1, 101 FCC 2d 952 (1985)]
Under what conditions are state and local governments permitted to regulate amateur radio antenna structures?
D. Amateur Service communications must be reasonably accommodated, and regulations must constitute the minimum practical to accommodate a legitimate purpose of the state or local entity
G1B07 (B) [97.113(a)(4)]
What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or procedural signals in the amateur service?
B. They may be used if they do not obscure the meaning of a message
G1B08 (B) [97.111(a)(1)]
When is it permissible to communicate with amateur stations in countries outside the areas administered by the Federal Communications Commission?
B. When the contact is with amateurs in any country except those whose administrations have notified the ITU that they object to such communications
G1B09 (D) [97.203(d)]
On what HF frequencies are automatically controlled beacons permitted?
D. 28.20 MHz to 28.30 MHz
G1B10 (C) [97.203(c)]
What is the power limit for beacon stations?
C. 100 watts PEP output
G1B11 (A) [97.101(a)]
Who or what determines “good engineering and good amateur practice,” as applied to the operation of an amateur station in all respects not covered by the Part 97 rules?
A. The FCC
G1C – Transmitter power regulations; data emission standards; 60-meter operation requirements
G1C01 (A) [97.313(c)(1)]
What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on 10.140 MHz?
A. 200 watts PEP output
G1C02 (C) [97.313]
What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on the 12-meter band?
C. 1500 watts PEP output
G1C03 (A) [97.303(h)(1)]
What is the maximum bandwidth permitted by FCC rules for amateur radio stations transmitting on USB frequencies in the 60-meter band?
A. 2.8 kHz
G1C04 (A) [97.303(i)]
Which of the following is required by the FCC rules when operating in the 60-meter band?
A. If you are using an antenna other than a dipole, you must keep a record of the gain of your antenna
G1C05 (C) [97.313]
What is the limit for transmitter power on the 28 MHz band for a General Class control operator?
C. 1500 watts PEP output
G1C06 (D) [97.313]
What is the limit for transmitter power on the 1.8 MHz band?
D. 1500 watts PEP output
G1C07 (C) [97.309(a)(4)]
What must be done before using a new digital protocol on the air?
C. Publicly document the technical characteristics of the protocol
G1C08 (D) [97.307(f)(3)]
What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted at frequencies below 28 MHz?
D. 300 baud
G1C09 (C) [97.313(i)]
What is the maximum power limit on the 60-meter band?
C. ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to a dipole
G1C10 (C) [97.305(c) and 97.307(f)(4)]
What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 10-meter band?
C. 1200 baud
G1C11 (D) [97.313]
What measurement is specified by FCC rules that regulate maximum power?
D. PEP output from the transmitter
G1D – Volunteer Examiners and Volunteer Examiner Coordinators; temporary identification; element credit; remote operation
G1D01 (A) [97.501, 97.505(a)]
Who may receive partial credit for the elements represented by an expired amateur radio license?
A. Any person who can demonstrate that they once held an FCC-issued General, Advanced, or Amateur Extra class license that was not revoked by the FCC
G1D02 (C) [97.509(b)(3)(i)]
What license examinations may you administer as an accredited Volunteer Examiner holding a General class operator license?
C. Technician only
G1D03 (C) [97.9(b)]
On which of the following band segments may you operate if you are a Technician class operator and have an unexpired Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) for General class privileges?
C. On any General or Technician class band segment
G1D04 (A) [97.509(3)(i)(c)]
Who must observe the administration of a Technician class license examination?
A. At least three Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher
G1D05 (A) [97.7]
When operating a US station by remote control from outside the country, what license is required of the control operator?
A. A US operator/primary station license
G1D06 (A) [97.119(f)(2)]
Until an upgrade to General class is shown in the FCC database, when must a Technician licensee identify with “AG” after their call sign?
A. Whenever they operate using General class frequency privileges
G1D07 (C) [97.509(b)(1)]
Volunteer Examiners are accredited by what organization?
C. A Volunteer Examiner Coordinator
G1D08 (B) [97.509(b)(3)]
Which of the following criteria must be met for a non-US citizen to be an accredited Volunteer Examiner?
B. The person must hold an FCC granted amateur radio license of General class or above
G1D09 (C) [97.9(b)]
How long is a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) valid for exam element credit?
C. 365 days
G1D10 (B) [97.509(b)(2)]
What is the minimum age that one must be to qualify as an accredited Volunteer Examiner?
B. 18 years
G1D11 (D) [97.505]
What action is required to obtain a new General class license after a previously held license has expired and the two-year grace period has passed?
D. The applicant must show proof of the appropriate expired license grant and pass the current Element 2 exam
G1D12 (C) [97.507]
When operating a station in South America by remote control over the internet from the US, what regulations apply?
C. Only those of the remote station’s country
G1E – Control categories; repeater regulations; third-party rules; ITU regions; automatically controlled digital station
G1E01 (A) [97.115(b)(2)]
Which of the following would disqualify a third party from participating in sending a message via an amateur station?
A. The third party’s amateur license has been revoked and not reinstated
G1E02 (D) [97.205(b)]
When may a 10-meter repeater retransmit the 2-meter signal from a station that has a Technician class control operator?
D. Only if the 10-meter repeater control operator holds at least a General class license
G1E03 (A) [97.221]
What is required to conduct communications with a digital station operating under automatic control outside the automatic control band segments?
A. The station initiating the contact must be under local or remote control
G1E04 (D) [97.13(b), 97.303, 97.311(b)]
Which of the following conditions require a licensed amateur radio operator to take specific steps to avoid harmful interference to other users or facilities?
A. When operating within one mile of an FCC Monitoring Station
B. When using a band where the Amateur Service is secondary
C. When a station is transmitting spread spectrum emissions
D. All these choices are correct
G1E05 (C) [97.115(a)(2), 97.117]
What are the restrictions on messages sent to a third party in a country with which there is a Third-Party Agreement?
C. They must relate to amateur radio, or remarks of a personal character, or messages relating to emergencies or disaster relief
G1E06 (C) [97.301, ITU Radio Regulations]
The frequency allocations of which ITU region apply to radio amateurs operating in North and South America?
C. Region 2
G1E07 (D) [97.111]
In what part of the 2.4 GHz band may an amateur station communicate with non-licensed Wi-Fi stations?
D. No part
G1E08 (B) [97.313(j)]
What is the maximum PEP output allowed for spread spectrum transmissions?
B. 10 watts
G1E09 (A) [97.115]
Under what circumstances are messages that are sent via digital modes exempt from Part 97 third-party rules that apply to other modes of communication?
A. Under no circumstances
G1E10 (A) [97.101]
Why should an amateur operator normally avoid transmitting on 14.100, 18.110, 21.150, 24.930 and 28.200 MHz?
A. A system of propagation beacon stations operates on those frequencies
G1E11 (D) [97.221, 97.305]
On what bands may automatically controlled stations transmitting RTTY or data emissions communicate with other automatically controlled digital stations?
D. Anywhere in the 6-meter or shorter wavelength bands, and in limited segments of some of the HF bands
G1E12 (A) [97.115]
When may third-party messages be transmitted via remote control?
A. Under any circumstances in which third party messages are permitted by FCC rules
SUBELEMENT G2 – OPERATING PROCEDURES [5 Exam Questions – 5 Groups]
G2A – Phone operating procedures: USB/LSB conventions, breaking into a contact, transmitter setup for voice operation; answering DX stations
G2A01 (A)
Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on frequencies of 14 MHz or higher?
A. Upper sideband
G2A02 (B)
Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands?
B. Lower sideband
G2A03 (A)
Which mode is most commonly used for SSB voice communications in the VHF and UHF bands?
A. Upper sideband
G2A04 (A)
Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 17- and 12-meter bands?
A. Upper sideband
G2A05 (C)
Which mode of voice communication is most commonly used on the HF amateur bands?
C. Single sideband
G2A06 (D)
Which of the following is an advantage of using single sideband, as compared to other analog voice modes on the HF amateur bands?
D. Less bandwidth used and greater power efficiency
G2A07 (B)
Which of the following statements is true of single sideband (SSB)?
B. Only one sideband is transmitted; the other sideband and carrier are suppressed
G2A08 (B)
What is the recommended way to break into a phone contact?
B. Say your call sign once
G2A09 (D)
Why do most amateur stations use lower sideband on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands?
D. It is commonly accepted amateur practice
G2A10 (B)
Which of the following statements is true of VOX operation versus PTT operation?
B. It allows “hands free” operation
G2A11 (C)
Generally, who should respond to a station in the contiguous 48 states calling “CQ DX”?
C. Any stations outside the lower 48 states
G2A12 (B)
What control is typically adjusted for proper ALC setting on a single sideband transceiver?
B. Transmit audio or microphone gain
G2B – Operating effectively; band plans; drills and emergencies; RACES operation
G2B01 (C) [97.101(b), (c)]
Which of the following is true concerning access to frequencies?
C. Except during emergencies, no amateur station has priority access to any frequency
G2B02 (B)
What is the first thing you should do if you are communicating with another amateur station and hear a station in distress break in?
B. Acknowledge the station in distress and determine what assistance may be needed
G2B03 (C)
What is good amateur practice if propagation changes during a contact creating interference from other stations using the frequency?
C. Attempt to resolve the interference problem with the other stations in a mutually acceptable manner
G2B04 (B)
When selecting a CW transmitting frequency, what minimum separation from other stations should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?
B. 150 Hz to 500 Hz
G2B05 (C)
When selecting an SSB transmitting frequency, what minimum separation should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?
C. 2 kHz to 3 kHz
G2B06 (A)
How can you avoid harmful interference on an apparently clear frequency before calling CQ on CW or phone?
A. Send “QRL?” on CW, followed by your call sign; or, if using phone, ask if the frequency is in use, followed by your call sign
G2B07 (C)
Which of the following complies with commonly accepted amateur practice when choosing a frequency on which to initiate a call?
C. Follow the voluntary band plan
G2B08 (A)
What is the voluntary band plan restriction for US stations transmitting within the 48 contiguous states in the 50.1 MHz to 50.125 MHz band segment?
A. Only contacts with stations not within the 48 contiguous states
G2B09 (A) [97.407(a)]
Who may be the control operator of an amateur station transmitting in RACES to assist relief operations during a disaster?
A. Only a person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license
G2B10 (B)
Which of the following is good amateur practice for net management?
B. Have a backup frequency in case of interference or poor conditions
G2B11 (C) [97.407(d)(4)]
How often may RACES training drills and tests be routinely conducted without special authorization?
C. No more than 1 hour per week
G2C – CW operating procedures and procedural signals; Q signals; full break-in
G2C01 (D)
Which of the following describes full break-in CW operation (QSK)?
D. Transmitting stations can receive between code characters and elements
G2C02 (A)
What should you do if a CW station sends “QRS?”
A. Send slower
G2C03 (C)
What does it mean when a CW operator sends “KN” at the end of a transmission?
C. Listening only for a specific station or stations
G2C04 (D)
What does the Q signal “QRL?” mean?
D. “Are you busy?” or “Is this frequency in use?”
G2C05 (B)
What is the best speed to use when answering a CQ in Morse code?
B. The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no faster than the CQ
G2C06 (D)
What does the term “zero beat” mean in CW operation?
D. Matching the transmit frequency to the frequency of a received signal
G2C07 (A)
When sending CW, what does a “C” mean when added to the RST report?
A. Chirpy or unstable signal
G2C08 (C)
What prosign is sent to indicate the end of a formal message when using CW?
C. AR
G2C09 (C)
What does the Q signal “QSL” mean?
C. I have received and understood
G2C10 (D)
What does the Q signal “QRN” mean?
D. I am troubled by static
G2C11 (D)
What does the Q signal “QRV” mean?
D. I am ready to receive
G2D – Volunteer Monitor Program; HF operations
G2D01 (A)
What is the Volunteer Monitor Program?
A. Amateur volunteers who are formally enlisted to monitor the airwaves for rules violations
G2D02 (D)
Which of the following are objectives of the Volunteer Monitor Program?
D. To encourage amateur radio operators to self-regulate and comply with the rules
G2D03 (B)
What procedure may be used by Volunteer Monitors to localize a station whose continuous carrier is holding a repeater on in their area?
B. Compare beam headings on the repeater input from their home locations with that of other Volunteer Monitors
G2D04 (B)
Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map?
B. A map that shows true bearings and distances from a specific location
G2D05 (C)
Which of the following indicates that you are looking for an HF contact with any station?
C. Repeat “CQ” a few times, followed by “this is,” then your call sign a few times, then pause to listen, repeat as necessary
G2D06 (C)
How is a directional antenna pointed when making a “long-path” contact with another station?
C. 180 degrees from the station’s short-path heading
G2D07 (D)
Which of the following are examples of the NATO Phonetic Alphabet?
D. Alpha, Bravo, Charlie, Delta
G2D08 (D)
Why do many amateurs keep a station log?
D. To help with a reply if the FCC requests information about your station
G2D09 (C)
Which of the following is required when participating in a contest on HF frequencies?
C. Identify your station according to normal FCC regulations
G2D10 (B)
What is QRP operation?
B. Low-power transmit operation
G2D11 (A)
Why are signal reports typically exchanged at the beginning of an HF contact?
A. To allow each station to operate according to conditions
G2E – Digital mode operating procedures
G2E01 (D)
Which mode is normally used when sending RTTY signals via AFSK with an SSB transmitter?
D. LSB
G2E02 (B)
What is VARA?
B. A digital protocol used with Winlink
G2E03 (D)
What symptoms may result from other signals interfering with a PACTOR or VARA transmission?
A. Frequent retries or timeouts
B. Long pauses in message transmission
C. Failure to establish a connection between stations
D. All these choices are correct
G2E04 (D)
Which of the following is good practice when choosing a transmitting frequency to answer a station calling CQ using FT8?
D. Find a clear frequency during the alternate time slot to the calling station
G2E05 (B)
What is the standard sideband for JT65, JT9, FT4, or FT8 digital signal when using AFSK?
B. USB
G2E06 (B)
What is the most common frequency shift for RTTY emissions in the amateur HF bands?
B. 170 Hz
G2E07 (B)
Which of the following is required when using FT8?
B. Computer time accurate to within approximately 1 second
G2E08 (D)
In what segment of the 20-meter band are most digital mode operations commonly found?
D. Between 14.070 MHz and 14.100 MHz
G2E09 (C)
How do you join a contact between two stations using the PACTOR protocol?
C. Joining an existing contact is not possible, PACTOR connections are limited to two stations
G2E10 (D)
Which of the following is a way to establish contact with a digital messaging system gateway station?
D. Transmit a connect message on the station’s published frequency
G2E11 (C)
What is the primary purpose of an Amateur Radio Emergency Data Network (AREDN) mesh network?
C. To provide high-speed data services during an emergency or community event
G2E12 (D)
Which of the following describes Winlink?
A. An amateur radio wireless network to send and receive email on the internet
B. A form of Packet Radio
C. A wireless network capable of both VHF and HF band operation
D. All of the above
G2E13 (B)
What is another name for a Winlink Remote Message Server?
B. Gateway
G2E14 (D)
What could be wrong if you cannot decode an RTTY or other FSK signal even though it is apparently tuned in properly?
A. The mark and space frequencies may be reversed
B. You may have selected the wrong baud rate
C. You may be listening on the wrong sideband
D. All these choices are correct
G2E15 (C)
Which of the following is a common location for FT8?
C. Approximately 14.074 MHz to 14.077 MHz
SUBELEMENT G3 – RADIO WAVE PROPAGATION [3 Exam Questions – 3 Groups]
G3A – Sunspots and solar radiation; geomagnetic field and stability indices
G3A01 (A)
How does a higher sunspot number affect HF propagation?
A. Higher sunspot numbers generally indicate a greater probability of good propagation at higher frequencies
G3A02 (B)
What effect does a sudden ionospheric disturbance have on the daytime ionospheric propagation?
B. It disrupts signals on lower frequencies more than those on higher frequencies
G3A03 (C)
Approximately how long does it take the increased ultraviolet and X-ray radiation from a solar flare to affect radio propagation on Earth?
C. 8 minutes
G3A04 (D)
Which of the following are the least reliable bands for long-distance communications during periods of low solar activity?
D. 15 meters, 12 meters, and 10 meters
G3A05 (D)
What is the solar flux index?
D. A measure of solar radiation with a wavelength of 10.7 centimeters
G3A06 (D)
What is a geomagnetic storm?
D. A temporary disturbance in Earth’s geomagnetic field
G3A07 (D)
At what point in the solar cycle does the 20-meter band usually support worldwide propagation during daylight hours?
D. At any point
G3A08 (D)
How can a geomagnetic storm affect HF propagation?
D. Degrade high-latitude HF propagation
G3A09 (A)
How can high geomagnetic activity benefit radio communications?
A. Creates auroras that can reflect VHF signals
G3A10 (C)
What causes HF propagation conditions to vary periodically in a 26- to 28-day cycle?
C. Rotation of the Sun’s surface layers around its axis
G3A11 (D)
How long does it take a coronal mass ejection to affect radio propagation on Earth?
D. 15 hours to several days
G3A12 (B)
What does the K-index measure?
B. The short-term stability of Earth’s geomagnetic field
G3A13 (C)
What does the A-index measure?
C. The long-term stability of Earth’s geomagnetic field
G3A14 (B)
How is long distance radio communication usually affected by the charged particles that reach Earth from solar coronal holes?
B. HF communication is disturbed
G3B – Maximum Usable Frequency; Lowest Usable Frequency; short path and long path propagation; determining propagation conditions; ionospheric refraction
G3B01 (D)
What is a characteristic of skywave signals arriving at your location by both short-path and long-path propagation?
D. A slightly delayed echo might be heard
G3B02 (D)
What factors affect the MUF?
A. Path distance and location
B. Time of day and season
C. Solar radiation and ionospheric disturbances
D. All these choices are correct
G3B03 (A)
Which frequency will have the least attenuation for long-distance skip propagation?
A. Just below the MUF
G3B04 (A)
Which of the following is a way to determine current propagation on a desired band from your station?
A. Use a network of automated receiving stations on the internet to see where your transmissions are being received
G3B05 (A)
How does the ionosphere affect radio waves with frequencies below the MUF and above the LUF?
A. They are refracted back to Earth
G3B06 (C)
What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the LUF?
C. They are attenuated before reaching the destination
G3B07 (A)
What does LUF stand for?
A. The Lowest Usable Frequency for communications between two specific points
G3B08 (B)
What does MUF stand for?
B. The Maximum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
G3B09 (C)
What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth’s surface normally covered in one hop using the F2 region?
C. 2,500 miles
G3B10 (B)
What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth’s surface normally covered in one hop using the E region?
B. 1,200 miles
G3B11 (A)
What happens to HF propagation when the LUF exceeds the MUF?
A. Propagation via ordinary skywave communications is not possible over that path
G3B12 (D)
Which of the following is typical of the lower HF frequencies during the summer?
D. High levels of atmospheric noise or static
G3C – Ionospheric regions; critical angle and frequency; HF scatter; near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS)
G3C01 (A)
Which ionospheric region is closest to the surface of Earth?
A. The D region
G3C02 (A)
What is meant by the term “critical frequency” at a given incidence angle?
A. The highest frequency which is refracted back to Earth
G3C03 (C)
Why is skip propagation via the F2 region longer than that via the other ionospheric regions?
C. Because it is the highest
G3C04 (D)
What does the term “critical angle” mean, as applied to radio wave propagation?
D. The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
G3C05 (C)
Why is long-distance communication on the 40-, 60-, 80-, and 160-meter bands more difficult during the day?
C. The D region absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
G3C06 (B)
What is a characteristic of HF scatter?
B. Signals have a fluttering sound
G3C07 (D)
What makes HF scatter signals often sound distorted?
D. Energy is scattered into the skip zone through several different paths
G3C08 (A)
Why are HF scatter signals in the skip zone usually weak?
A. Only a small part of the signal energy is scattered into the skip zone
G3C09 (B)
What type of propagation allows signals to be heard in the transmitting station’s skip zone?
B. Scatter
G3C10 (B)
What is near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) propagation?
B. Short distance MF or HF propagation at high elevation angles
G3C11 (D)
Which ionospheric region is the most absorbent of signals below 10 MHz during daylight hours?
D. The D region
SUBELEMENT G4 – AMATEUR RADIO PRACTICES [5 Exam Questions – 5 groups]
G4A – Station configuration and operation
G4A01 (B)
What is the purpose of the notch filter found on many HF transceivers?
B. To reduce interference from carriers in the receiver passband
G4A02 (C)
What is the benefit of using the opposite or “reverse” sideband when receiving CW?
C. It may be possible to reduce or eliminate interference from other signals
G4A03 (C)
How does a noise blanker work?
C. By reducing receiver gain during a noise pulse
G4A04 (B)
What is the effect on plate current of the correct setting of a vacuum-tube RF power amplifier’s TUNE control?
B. A pronounced dip
G4A05 (C)
Why is automatic level control (ALC) used with an RF power amplifier?
C. To prevent excessive drive
G4A06 (C)
What is the purpose of an antenna tuner?
C. Increase power transfer from the transmitter to the feed line
G4A07 (A)
What happens as a receiver’s noise reduction control level is increased?
A. Received signals may become distorted
G4A08 (D)
What is the correct adjustment for the LOAD or COUPLING control of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier?
D. Desired power output without exceeding maximum allowable plate current
G4A09 (C)
What is the purpose of delaying RF output after activating a transmitter’s keying line to an external amplifier?
C. To allow time for the amplifier to switch the antenna between the transceiver and the amplifier output
G4A10 (B)
What is the function of an electronic keyer?
B. Automatic generation of dots and dashes for CW operation
G4A11 (B)
Why should the ALC system be inactive when transmitting AFSK data signals?
B. The ALC action distorts the signal
G4A12 (C)
Which of the following is a common use of the dual-VFO feature on a transceiver?
C. To transmit on one frequency and listen on another
G4A13 (A)
What is the purpose of using a receive attenuator?
A. To prevent receiver overload from strong incoming signals
G4B – Tests and test equipment
G4B01 (D)
What item of test equipment contains horizontal and vertical channel amplifiers?
D. An oscilloscope
G4B02 (D)
Which of the following is an advantage of an oscilloscope versus a digital voltmeter?
D. Complex waveforms can be measured
G4B03 (A)
Which of the following is the best instrument to use for checking the keying waveform of a CW transmitter?
A. An oscilloscope
G4B04 (D)
What signal source is connected to the vertical input of an oscilloscope when checking the RF envelope pattern of a transmitted signal?
D. The attenuated RF output of the transmitter
G4B05 (D)
Why do voltmeters have high input impedance?
D. It decreases the loading on circuits being measured
G4B06 (C)
What is an advantage of a digital multimeter as compared to an analog multimeter?
C. Higher precision
G4B07 (B)
What signals are used to conduct a two-tone test?
B. Two non-harmonically related audio signals
G4B08 (A)
What transmitter performance parameter does a two-tone test analyze?
A. Linearity
G4B09 (D)
When is an analog multimeter preferred to a digital multimeter?
D. When adjusting circuits for maximum or minimum values
G4B10 (A)
Which of the following can be determined with a directional wattmeter?
A. Standing wave ratio
G4B11 (C)
Which of the following must be connected to an antenna analyzer when it is being used for SWR measurements?
C. Antenna and feed line
G4B12 (B)
What effect can strong signals from nearby transmitters have on an antenna analyzer?
B. Received power that interferes with SWR readings
G4B13 (C)
Which of the following can be measured with an antenna analyzer?
C. Impedance of coaxial cable
G4C – Interference to consumer electronics; grounding and bonding
G4C01 (B)
Which of the following might be useful in reducing RF interference to audio frequency circuits?
B. Bypass capacitor
G4C02 (C)
Which of the following could be a cause of interference covering a wide range of frequencies?
C. Arcing at a poor electrical connection
G4C03 (C)
What sound is heard from an audio device experiencing RF interference from a single sideband phone transmitter?
C. Distorted speech
G4C04 (A)
What sound is heard from an audio device experiencing RF interference from a CW transmitter?
A. On-and-off humming or clicking
G4C05 (D)
What is a possible cause of high voltages that produce RF burns?
D. The ground wire has high impedance on that frequency
G4C06 (C)
What is a possible effect of a resonant ground connection?
C. High RF voltages on the enclosures of station equipment
G4C07 (A)
Why should soldered joints not be used in lightning protection ground connections?
A. A soldered joint will likely be destroyed by the heat of a lightning strike
G4C08 (A)
Which of the following would reduce RF interference caused by common-mode current on an audio cable?
A. Place a ferrite choke on the cable
G4C09 (D)
How can the effects of ground loops be minimized?
D. Bond equipment enclosures together
G4C10 (A)
What could be a symptom caused by a ground loop in your station’s audio connections?
A. You receive reports of “hum” on your station’s transmitted signal
G4C11 (C)
What technique helps to minimize RF “hot spots” in an amateur station?
C. Bonding all equipment enclosures together
G4C12 (D)
Why must all metal enclosures of station equipment be grounded?
D. It ensures that hazardous voltages cannot appear on the chassis
G4D – Speech processors; S meters; sideband operation near band edges
G4D01 (A)
What is the purpose of a speech processor in a transceiver?
A. Increase the apparent loudness of transmitted voice signals
G4D02 (B)
How does a speech processor affect a single sideband phone signal?
B. It increases average power
G4D03 (D)
What is the effect of an incorrectly adjusted speech processor?
A. Distorted speech
B. Excess intermodulation products
C. Excessive background noise
D. All these choices are correct
G4D04 (C)
What does an S meter measure?
C. Received signal strength
G4D05 (D)
How does a signal that reads 20 dB over S9 compare to one that reads S9 on a receiver, assuming a properly calibrated S meter?
D. It is 100 times more powerful
G4D06 (A)
How much change in signal strength is typically represented by one S unit?
A. 6 dB
G4D07 (C)
How much must the power output of a transmitter be raised to change the S meter reading on a distant receiver from S8 to S9?
C. Approximately 4 times
G4D08 (C)
What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz LSB signal when the displayed carrier frequency is set to 7.178 MHz?
C. 7.175 MHz to 7.178 MHz
G4D09 (B)
What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz USB signal with the displayed carrier frequency set to 14.347 MHz?
B. 14.347 MHz to 14.350 MHz
G4D10 (A)
How close to the lower edge of a band’s phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide LSB?
A. At least 3 kHz above the edge of the segment
G4D11 (B)
How close to the upper edge of a band’s phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide USB?
B. At least 3 kHz below the edge of the band
G4E – Mobile and portable HF stations; alternative energy source operation
G4E01 (C)
What is the purpose of a capacitance hat on a mobile antenna?
C. To electrically lengthen a physically short antenna
G4E02 (D)
What is the purpose of a corona ball on an HF mobile antenna?
D. To reduce RF voltage discharge from the tip of the antenna while transmitting
G4E03 (A)
Which of the following direct, fused power connections would be the best for a 100-watt HF mobile installation?
A. To the battery using heavy-gauge wire
G4E04 (B)
Why should DC power for a 100-watt HF transceiver not be supplied by a vehicle’s auxiliary power socket?
B. The socket’s wiring may be inadequate for the current drawn by the transceiver
G4E05 (C)
Which of the following most limits an HF mobile installation?
C. Efficiency of the electrically short antenna
G4E06 (C)
What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full-size antenna?
C. Operating bandwidth may be very limited
G4E07 (D)
Which of the following may cause receive interference to an HF transceiver installed in a vehicle?
A. The battery charging system
B. The fuel delivery system
C. The control computers
D. All these choices are correct
G4E08 (A)
In what configuration are the individual cells in a solar panel connected together?
A. Series-parallel
G4E09 (B)
What is the approximate open-circuit voltage from a fully illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell?
B. 0.5 VDC
G4E10 (B)
Why should a series diode be connected between a solar panel and a storage battery that is being charged by the panel?
B. To prevent discharge of the battery through the panel during times of low or no illumination
G4E11 (D)
What precaution should be taken when connecting a solar panel to a lithium iron phosphate battery?
D. The solar panel must have a charge controller
SUBELEMENT G5 – ELECTRICAL PRINCIPLES [3 Exam Questions – 3 Groups]
G5A – Reactance; inductance; capacitance; impedance; impedance transformation; resonance
G5A01 (C)
What happens when inductive and capacitive reactance are equal in a series LC circuit?
C. Resonance causes impedance to be very low
G5A02 (B)
What is reactance?
B. Opposition to the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance
G5A03 (D)
Which of the following is opposition to the flow of alternating current in an inductor?
D. Reactance
G5A04 (C)
Which of the following is opposition to the flow of alternating current in a capacitor?
C. Reactance
G5A05 (D)
How does an inductor react to AC?
D. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
G5A06 (A)
How does a capacitor react to AC?
A. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
G5A07 (D)
What is the term for the inverse of impedance?
D. Admittance
G5A08 (C)
What is impedance?
C. The ratio of voltage to current
G5A09 (B)
What unit is used to measure reactance?
B. Ohm
G5A10 (D)
Which of the following devices can be used for impedance matching at radio frequencies?
A. A transformer
B. A Pi-network
C. A length of transmission line
D. All these choices are correct
G5A11 (B)
What letter is used to represent reactance?
B. X
G5A12 (D)
What occurs in an LC circuit at resonance?
D. Inductive reactance and capacitive reactance cancel
G5B – The decibel; current and voltage dividers; electrical power calculations; sine wave root-mean-square (RMS) values; PEP calculations
G5B01 (B)
What dB change represents a factor of two increase or decrease in power?
B. Approximately 3 dB
G5B02 (C)
How does the total current relate to the individual currents in a circuit of parallel resistors?
C. It equals the sum of the currents through each branch
G5B03 (B)
How many watts of electrical power are consumed if 400 VDC is supplied to an 800-ohm load?
B. 200 watts
G5B04 (A)
How many watts of electrical power are consumed by a 12 VDC light bulb that draws 0.2 amperes?
A. 2.4 watts
G5B05 (A)
How many watts are consumed when a current of 7.0 milliamperes flows through a 1,250-ohm resistance?
A. Approximately 61 milliwatts
G5B06 (B)
What is the PEP produced by 200 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm dummy load?
B. 100 watts
G5B07 (C)
What value of an AC signal produces the same power dissipation in a resistor as a DC voltage of the same value?
C. The RMS value
G5B08 (D)
What is the peak-to-peak voltage of a sine wave with an RMS voltage of 120 volts?
D. 339.4 volts
G5B09 (B)
What is the RMS voltage of a sine wave with a value of 17 volts peak?
B. 12 volts
G5B10 (C)
What percentage of power loss is equivalent to a loss of 1 dB?
C. 20.6 percent
G5B11 (B)
What is the ratio of PEP to average power for an unmodulated carrier?
B. 1.00
G5B12 (B)
What is the RMS voltage across a 50-ohm dummy load dissipating 1200 watts?
B. 245 volts
G5B13 (B)
What is the output PEP of an unmodulated carrier if the average power is 1060 watts?
B. 1060 watts
G5B14 (B)
What is the output PEP of 500 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm load?
B. 625 watts
G5C – Resistors, capacitors, and inductors in series and parallel; transformers
G5C01 (C)
What causes a voltage to appear across the secondary winding of a transformer when an AC voltage source is connected across its primary winding?
C. Mutual inductance
G5C02 (A)
What is the output voltage if an input signal is applied to the secondary winding of a 4:1 voltage step-down transformer instead of the primary winding?
A. The input voltage is multiplied by 4
G5C03 (A)
What is the total resistance of a 10-, a 20-, and a 50-ohm resistor connected in parallel?
A. 5.9 ohms
G5C04 (D)
What is the approximate total resistance of a 100- and a 200-ohm resistor in parallel?
D. 67 ohms
G5C05 (B)
Why is the primary winding wire of a voltage step-up transformer usually a larger size than that of the secondary winding?
B. To accommodate the higher current of the primary
G5C06 (A)
What is the voltage output of a transformer with a 500-turn primary and a 1500-turn secondary when 120 VAC is applied to the primary?
A. 360 volts
G5C07 (A)
What transformer turns ratio matches an antenna’s 600-ohm feed point impedance to a 50-ohm coaxial cable?
A. 3.5 to 1
G5C08 (D)
What is the equivalent capacitance of two 5.0-nanofarad capacitors and one 750-picofarad capacitor connected in parallel?
D. 10.750 nanofarads
G5C09 (C)
What is the capacitance of three 100-microfarad capacitors connected in series?
C. 33.3 microfarads
G5C10 (C)
What is the inductance of three 10-millihenry inductors connected in parallel?
C. 3.3 millihenries
G5C11 (C)
What is the inductance of a circuit with a 20-millihenry inductor connected in series with a 50-millihenry inductor?
C. 70 millihenries
G5C12 (B)
What is the capacitance of a 20-microfarad capacitor connected in series with a 50-microfarad capacitor?
B. 14.3 microfarads
G5C13 (C)
Which of the following components should be added to a capacitor to increase the capacitance?
C. A capacitor in parallel
G5C14 (D)
Which of the following components should be added to an inductor to increase the inductance?
D. An inductor in series
SUBELEMENT G6 – CIRCUIT COMPONENTS [2 Exam Questions – 2 Groups]
G6A – Resistors; capacitors; inductors; rectifiers; solid-state diodes and transistors; vacuum tubes; batteries
G6A01 (C)
What is the minimum allowable discharge voltage for maximum life of a standard 12-volt lead-acid battery?
C. 10.5 volts
G6A02 (B)
What is an advantage of batteries with low internal resistance?
B. High discharge current
G6A03 (B)
What is the approximate forward threshold voltage of a germanium diode?
B. 0.3 volts
G6A04 (C)
Which of the following is characteristic of an electrolytic capacitor?
C. High capacitance for a given volume
G6A05 (C)
What is the approximate forward threshold voltage of a silicon junction diode?
C. 0.7 volts
G6A06 (B)
Why should wire-wound resistors not be used in RF circuits?
B. The resistor’s inductance could make circuit performance unpredictable
G6A07 (A)
What are the operating points for a bipolar transistor used as a switch?
A. Saturation and cutoff
G6A08 (D)
Which of the following is characteristic of low voltage ceramic capacitors?
D. Comparatively low cost
G6A09 (B)
Which of the following describes MOSFET construction?
B. The gate is separated from the channel by a thin insulating layer
G6A10 (A)
Which element of a vacuum tube regulates the flow of electrons between cathode and plate?
A. Control grid
G6A11 (C)
What happens when an inductor is operated above its self-resonant frequency?
C. It becomes capacitive
G6A12 (A)
What is the primary purpose of a screen grid in a vacuum tube?
A. To reduce grid-to-plate capacitance
G6B – Analog and digital integrated circuits (ICs); microwave ICs (MMICs); display devices; RF connectors; ferrite cores
G6B01 (C)
What determines the performance of a ferrite core at different frequencies?
C. The composition, or “mix,” of materials used
G6B02 (B)
What is meant by the term MMIC?
B. Monolithic Microwave Integrated Circuit
G6B03 (A)
Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS integrated circuits compared to TTL integrated circuits?
A. Low power consumption
G6B04 (C)
What is a typical upper frequency limit for low SWR operation of 50-ohm BNC connectors?
C. 4 GHz
G6B05 (D)
What is an advantage of using a ferrite core toroidal inductor?
A. Large values of inductance may be obtained
B. The magnetic properties of the core may be optimized for a specific range of frequencies
C. Most of the magnetic field is contained in the core
D. All these choices are correct
G6B06 (D)
What kind of device is an integrated circuit operational amplifier?
D. Analog
G6B07 (A)
Which of the following describes a type N connector?
A. A moisture-resistant RF connector useful to 10 GHz
G6B08 (D)
How is an LED biased when emitting light?
D. Forward biased
G6B09 Question Removed (section not renumbered)
G6B10 (A)
How does a ferrite bead or core reduce common-mode RF current on the shield of a coaxial cable?
A. By creating an impedance in the current’s path
G6B11 (B)
What is an SMA connector?
B. A small threaded connector suitable for signals up to several GHz
G6B12 (C)
Which of these connector types is commonly used for low frequency or dc signal connections to a transceiver?
C. RCA Phono
SUBELEMENT G7 – PRACTICAL CIRCUITS [3 Exam Questions – 3 Groups]
G7A – Power supplies; schematic symbols
G7A01 (B)
What is the function of a power supply bleeder resistor?
B. It discharges the filter capacitors when power is removed
G7A02 (C)
Which of the following components are used in a power supply filter network?
C. Capacitors and inductors
G7A03 (A)
Which type of rectifier circuit uses two diodes and a center-tapped transformer?
A. Full-wave
G7A04 (A)
What is characteristic of a half-wave rectifier in a power supply?
A. Only one diode is required
G7A05 (B)
What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a half-wave rectifier?
B. 180 degrees
G7A06 (D)
What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a full-wave rectifier?
D. 360 degrees
G7A07 (A)
What is the output waveform of an unfiltered full-wave rectifier connected to a resistive load?
A. A series of DC pulses at twice the frequency of the AC input
G7A08 (C)
Which of the following is characteristic of a switchmode power supply as compared to a linear power supply?
C. High-frequency operation allows the use of smaller components
G7A09 (C)
Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a field effect transistor?
C. Symbol 1
G7A10 (D)
Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a Zener diode?
D. Symbol 5
G7A11 (B)
Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents an NPN junction transistor?
B. Symbol 2
G7A12 (C)
Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a solid core transformer?
C. Symbol 6
G7A13 (A)
Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a tapped inductor?
A. Symbol 7
G7B – Digital circuits; amplifiers and oscillators
G7B01 (B)
What is the purpose of neutralizing an amplifier?
B. To eliminate self-oscillations
G7B02 (D)
Which of these classes of amplifiers has the highest efficiency?
D. Class C
G7B03 (B)
Which of the following describes the function of a two-input AND gate?
B. Output is high only when both inputs are high
G7B04 (A)
In a Class A amplifier, what percentage of the time does the amplifying device conduct?
A. 100%
G7B05 (C)
How many states does a 3-bit binary counter have?
C. 8
G7B06 (A)
What is a shift register?
A. A clocked array of circuits that passes data in steps along the array
G7B07 (D)
Which of the following are basic components of a sine wave oscillator?
D. A filter and an amplifier operating in a feedback loop
G7B08 (B)
How is the efficiency of an RF power amplifier determined?
B. Divide the RF output power by the DC input power
G7B09 (C)
What determines the frequency of an LC oscillator?
C. The inductance and capacitance in the tank circuit
G7B10 (B)
Which of the following describes a linear amplifier?
B. An amplifier in which the output preserves the input waveform
G7B11 (B)
For which of the following modes is a Class C power stage appropriate for amplifying a modulated signal?
B. FM
G7C – Transceiver design; filters; oscillators; digital signal processing (DSP)
G7C01 (B)
What circuit is used to select one of the sidebands from a balanced modulator?
B. Filter
G7C02 (D)
What output is produced by a balanced modulator?
D. Double-sideband modulated RF
G7C03 (B)
What is one reason to use an impedance matching transformer at a transmitter output?
B. To present the desired impedance to the transmitter and feed line
G7C04 (D)
How is a product detector used?
D. Used in a single sideband receiver to extract the modulated signal
G7C05 (D)
Which of the following is characteristic of a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?
D. Variable output frequency with the stability of a crystal oscillator
G7C06 (A)
Which of the following is an advantage of a digital signal processing (DSP) filter compared to an analog filter?
A. A wide range of filter bandwidths and shapes can be created
G7C07 (A)
What term specifies a filter’s attenuation inside its passband?
A. Insertion loss
G7C08 (D)
Which parameter affects receiver sensitivity?
A. Input amplifier gain
B. Demodulator stage bandwidth
C. Input amplifier noise figure
D. All these choices are correct
G7C09 (B)
What is the phase difference between the I and Q RF signals that software-defined radio (SDR) equipment uses for modulation and demodulation?
B. 90 degrees
G7C10 (B)
What is an advantage of using I-Q modulation with software-defined radios (SDRs)?
B. All types of modulation can be created with appropriate processing
G7C11 (D)
Which of these functions is performed by software in a software-defined radio (SDR)?
A. Filtering
B. Detection
C. Modulation
D. All these choices are correct
G7C12 (C)
What is the frequency above which a low-pass filter’s output power is less than half the input power?
C. Cutoff frequency
G7C13 (D)
What term specifies a filter’s maximum ability to reject signals outside its passband?
D. Ultimate rejection
G7C14 (A)
The bandwidth of a band-pass filter is measured between what two frequencies?
A. Upper and lower half-power
SUBELEMENT G8 – SIGNALS AND EMISSIONS [3 Exam Questions – 3 Groups]
G8A – Carriers and modulation: AM, FM, and single sideband; modulation envelope; digital modulation; overmodulation; link budgets and link margins
G8A01 (B)
How is direct binary FSK modulation generated?
B. By changing an oscillator’s frequency directly with a digital control signal
G8A02 (B)
What is the name of the process that changes the phase angle of an RF signal to convey information?
B. Phase modulation
G8A03 (D)
What is the name of the process that changes the instantaneous frequency of an RF wave to convey information?
D. Frequency modulation
G8A04 (B)
What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to a transmitter RF amplifier stage?
B. Phase modulation
G8A05 (D)
What type of modulation varies the instantaneous power level of the RF signal?
D. Amplitude modulation
G8A06 (D)
Which of the following is characteristic of QPSK31?
A. It is sideband sensitive
B. Its encoding provides error correction
C. Its bandwidth is approximately the same as BPSK31
D. All these choices are correct
G8A07 (A)
Which of the following phone emissions uses the narrowest bandwidth?
A. Single sideband
G8A08 (D)
Which of the following is an effect of overmodulation?
D. Excessive bandwidth
G8A09 (A)
What type of modulation is used by FT8?
A. 8-tone frequency shift keying
G8A10 (C)
What is meant by the term “flat-topping,” when referring to an amplitude-modulated phone signal?
C. Signal distortion caused by excessive drive or speech levels
G8A11 (A)
What is the modulation envelope of an AM signal?
A. The waveform created by connecting the peak values of the modulated signal
G8A12 (D)
What is QPSK modulation?
D. Modulation in which digital data is transmitted using 0-, 90-, 180- and 270-degrees phase shift to represent pairs of bits
G8A13 (C)
What is a link budget?
C. The sum of transmit power and antenna gains minus system losses as seen at the receiver
G8A14 (B)
What is link margin?
B. The difference between received power level and minimum required signal level at the input to the receiver
G8B – Frequency changing; bandwidths of various modes; deviation; intermodulation
G8B01 (B)
Which mixer input is varied or tuned to convert signals of different frequencies to an intermediate frequency (IF)?
B. Local oscillator
G8B02 (B)
What is the term for interference from a signal at twice the IF frequency from the desired signal?
B. Image response
G8B03 (A)
What is another term for the mixing of two RF signals?
A. Heterodyning
G8B04 (D)
What is the stage in a VHF FM transmitter that generates a harmonic of a lower frequency signal to reach the desired operating frequency?
D. Multiplier
G8B05 (C)
Which intermodulation products are closest to the original signal frequencies?
C. Odd-order
G8B06 (D)
What is the total bandwidth of an FM phone transmission having 5 kHz deviation and 3 kHz modulating frequency?
D. 16 kHz
G8B07 (B)
What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21 MHz reactance modulated oscillator in a 5 kHz deviation, 146.52 MHz FM phone transmitter?
B. 416.7 Hz
G8B08 (B)
Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the mode you are using when transmitting?
B. Some modes have high duty cycles that could exceed the transmitter’s average power rating
G8B09 (D)
Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?
D. It results in the best signal-to-noise ratio
G8B10 (B)
What is the relationship between transmitted symbol rate and bandwidth?
B. Higher symbol rates require wider bandwidth
G8B11 (C)
What combination of a mixer’s Local Oscillator (LO) and RF input frequencies is found in the output?
C. The sum and difference
G8B12 (A)
What process combines two signals in a non-linear circuit to produce unwanted spurious outputs?
A. Intermodulation
G8B13 (C)
Which of the following is an odd-order intermodulation product of frequencies F1 and F2?
C. 2F1-F2
G8C – Digital emission modes
G8C01 (C)
On what band do amateurs share channels with the unlicensed Wi-Fi service?
C. 2.4 GHz
G8C02 (A)
Which digital mode is used as a low-power beacon for assessing HF propagation?
A. WSPR
G8C03 (C)
What part of a packet radio frame contains the routing and handling information?
C. Header
G8C04 (C)
Which of the following describes Baudot code?
C. A 5-bit code with additional start and stop bits
G8C05 (A)
In an ARQ mode, what is meant by a NAK response to a transmitted packet?
A. Request retransmission of the packet
G8C06 (B)
What action results from a failure to exchange information due to excessive transmission attempts when using an ARQ mode?
B. The connection is dropped
G8C07 (B)
Which of the following narrow-band digital modes can receive signals with very low signal-to-noise ratios?
B. FT8
G8C08 (B)
Which of the following statements is true about PSK31?
B. Upper case letters use longer Varicode bit sequences and thus slow down transmission
G8C09 (B)
Which is true of mesh network microwave nodes?
B. If one node fails, a packet may still reach its target station via an alternate node
G8C10 (C)
How does forward error correction (FEC) allow the receiver to correct data errors?
C. By transmitting redundant information with the data
G8C11 (D)
How are the two separate frequencies of a Frequency Shift Keyed (FSK) signal identified?
D. Mark and space
G8C12 (A)
Which type of code is used for sending characters in a PSK31 signal?
A. Varicode
G8C13 (D)
What is indicated on a waterfall display by one or more vertical lines on either side of a data mode or RTTY signal?
D. Overmodulation
G8C14 (C)
Which of the following describes a waterfall display?
C. Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is intensity, time is vertical
G8C15 (C)
What does an FT8 signal report of +3 mean?
C. The signal-to-noise ratio is equivalent to +3dB in a 2.5 kHz bandwidth
G8C16 (D)
Which of the following provide digital voice modes?
D. DMR, D-STAR, and SystemFusion
SUBELEMENT G9 – ANTENNAS AND FEED LINES [4 Exam Questions – 4 Groups]
G9A – Feed lines: characteristic impedance and attenuation; standing wave ratio (SWR) calculation, measurement, and effects; antenna feed point matching
G9A01 (A)
Which of the following factors determine the characteristic impedance of a parallel conductor feed line?
A. The distance between the centers of the conductors and the radius of the conductors
G9A02 (B)
What is the relationship between high standing wave ratio (SWR) and transmission line loss?
B. High SWR increases loss in a lossy transmission line
G9A03 (D)
What is the nominal characteristic impedance of “window line” transmission line?
D. 450 ohms
G9A04 (C)
What causes reflected power at an antenna’s feed point?
C. A difference between feed line impedance and antenna feed point impedance
G9A05 (B)
How does the attenuation of coaxial cable change with increasing frequency?
B. Attenuation increases
G9A06 (D)
In what units is RF feed line loss usually expressed?
D. Decibels per 100 feet
G9A07 (D)
What must be done to prevent standing waves on a feed line connected to an antenna?
D. The antenna feed point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line
G9A08 (B)
If the SWR on an antenna feed line is 5:1, and a matching network at the transmitter end of the feed line is adjusted to present a 1:1 SWR to the transmitter, what is the resulting SWR on the feed line?
B. 5:1
G9A09 (A)
What standing wave ratio results from connecting a 50-ohm feed line to a 200-ohm resistive load?
A. 4:1
G9A10 (D)
What standing wave ratio results from connecting a 50-ohm feed line to a 10-ohm resistive load?
D. 5:1
G9A11 (A)
What is the effect of transmission line loss on SWR measured at the input to the line?
A. Higher loss reduces SWR measured at the input to the line
G9B – Basic dipole and monopole antennas
G9B01 (B)
What is a characteristic of a random-wire HF antenna connected directly to the transmitter?
B. Station equipment may carry significant RF current
G9B02 (B)
Which of the following is a common way to adjust the feed point impedance of an elevated quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna to be approximately 50 ohms?
B. Slope the radials downward
G9B03 (D)
Which of the following best describes the radiation pattern of a quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna?
D. Omnidirectional in azimuth
G9B04 (A)
What is the radiation pattern of a dipole antenna in free space in a plane containing the conductor?
A. It is a figure-eight at right angles to the antenna
G9B05 (C)
How does antenna height affect the azimuthal radiation pattern of a horizontal dipole HF antenna at elevation angles higher than about 45 degrees?
C. If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, the azimuthal pattern is almost omnidirectional
G9B06 (C)
Where should the radial wires of a ground-mounted vertical antenna system be placed?
C. On the surface or buried a few inches below the ground
G9B07 (B)
How does the feed point impedance of a horizontal 1/2 wave dipole antenna change as the antenna height is reduced to 1/10 wavelength above ground?
B. It steadily decreases
G9B08 (A)
How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole change as the feed point is moved from the center toward the ends?
A. It steadily increases
G9B09 (A)
Which of the following is an advantage of using a horizontally polarized as compared to a vertically polarized HF antenna?
A. Lower ground losses
G9B10 (D)
What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 14.250 MHz?
D. 33 feet
G9B11 (C)
What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 3.550 MHz?
C. 132 feet
G9B12 (A)
What is the approximate length for a 1/4 wave monopole antenna cut for 28.5 MHz?
A. 8 feet
G9C – Directional antennas
G9C01 (A)
Which of the following would increase the bandwidth of a Yagi antenna?
A. Larger-diameter elements
G9C02 (B)
What is the approximate length of the driven element of a Yagi antenna?
B. 1/2 wavelength
G9C03 (A)
How do the lengths of a three-element Yagi reflector and director compare to that of the driven element?
A. The reflector is longer, and the director is shorter
G9C04 (B)
How does antenna gain in dBi compare to gain stated in dBd for the same antenna?
B. Gain in dBi is 2.15 dB higher
G9C05 (A)
What is the primary effect of increasing boom length and adding directors to a Yagi antenna?
A. Gain increases
G9C07 (C)
What does “front-to-back ratio” mean in reference to a Yagi antenna?
C. The power radiated in the major lobe compared to that in the opposite direction
G9C08 (D)
What is meant by the “main lobe” of a directive antenna?
D. The direction of maximum radiated field strength from the antenna
G9C09 (B)
In free space, how does the gain of two three-element, horizontally polarized Yagi antennas spaced vertically 1/2 wavelength apart typically compare to the gain of a single three-element Yagi?
B. Approximately 3 dB higher
G9C10 (D)
Which of the following can be adjusted to optimize forward gain, front-to-back ratio, or SWR bandwidth of a Yagi antenna?
A. The physical length of the boom
B. The number of elements on the boom
C. The spacing of each element along the boom
D. All these choices are correct
G9C11 (A)
What is a beta or hairpin match?
A. A shorted transmission line stub placed at the feed point of a Yagi antenna to provide impedance matching
G9C12 (A)
Which of the following is a characteristic of using a gamma match with a Yagi antenna?
A. It does not require the driven element to be insulated from the boom
G9D – Specialized antenna types and applications
G9D01 (A)
Which of the following antenna types will be most effective as a near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) antenna for short-skip communications on 40 meters during the day?
A. A horizontal dipole placed between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground
G9D02 (D)
What is the feed point impedance of an end-fed half-wave antenna?
D. Very high
G9D03 (C)
In which direction is the maximum radiation from a VHF/UHF “halo” antenna?
C. Omnidirectional in the plane of the halo
G9D04 (A)
What is the primary function of antenna traps?
A. To enable multiband operation
G9D05 (D)
What is an advantage of vertically stacking horizontally polarized Yagi antennas?
D. It narrows the main lobe in elevation
G9D06 (A)
Which of the following is an advantage of a log-periodic antenna?
A. Wide bandwidth
G9D07 (A)
Which of the following describes a log-periodic antenna?
A. Element length and spacing vary logarithmically along the boom
G9D08 (B)
How does a “screwdriver” mobile antenna adjust its feed point impedance?
B. By varying the base loading inductance
G9D09 (A)
What is the primary use of a Beverage antenna?
A. Directional receiving for MF and low HF bands
G9D10 (B)
In which direction or directions does an electrically small loop (less than 1/10 wavelength in circumference) have nulls in its radiation pattern?
B. Broadside to the loop
G9D11 (D)
Which of the following is a disadvantage of multiband antennas?
D. They have poor harmonic rejection
G9D12 (A)
What is the common name of a dipole with a single central support?
A. Inverted V
SUBELEMENT G0 – ELECTRICAL AND RF SAFETY [2 Exam Questions – 2 Groups]
G0A – RF safety principles, rules, and guidelines; routine station evaluation
G0A01 (A)
What is one way that RF energy can affect human body tissue?
A. It heats body tissue
G0A02 (D)
Which of the following is used to determine RF exposure from a transmitted signal?
A. Its duty cycle
B. Its frequency
C. Its power density
D. All these choices are correct
G0A03 (D) [97.13(c)(1)]
How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?
A. By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65
B. By calculation based on computer modeling
C. By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment
D. All these choices are correct
G0A04 (D)
What does “time averaging” mean when evaluating RF radiation exposure?
D. The total RF exposure averaged over a certain period
G0A05 (A) [97.13(c)(2), 1.1307(b)]
What must you do if an evaluation of your station shows that the RF energy radiated by your station exceeds permissible limits for possible human absorption?
A. Take action to prevent human exposure to the excessive RF fields
G0A06 (A) [97.13(c)(2), 1.1307(1)(b)(3)(i)]
What must you do if your station fails to meet the FCC RF exposure exemption criteria?
A. Perform an RF Exposure Evaluation in accordance with FCC OET Bulletin 65
G0A07 (A)
What is the effect of modulation duty cycle on RF exposure?
A. A lower duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted
G0A08 (C) [97.13(c)(2)]
Which of the following steps must an amateur operator take to ensure compliance with RF safety regulations?
C. Perform a routine RF exposure evaluation and prevent access to any identified high exposure areas
G0A09 (B)
What type of instrument can be used to accurately measure an RF field strength?
B. A calibrated field strength meter with a calibrated antenna
G0A10 (C)
What should be done if evaluation shows that a neighbor might experience more than the allowable limit of RF exposure from the main lobe of a directional antenna?
C. Take precautions to ensure that the antenna cannot be pointed in their direction when they are present
G0A11 (C)
What precaution should be taken if you install an indoor transmitting antenna?
C. Make sure that MPE limits are not exceeded in occupied areas
G0A12 (D) [1.1307(1)(b)(3)(i)(A)]
What stations are subject to the FCC rules on RF exposure?
D. All stations with a time-averaged transmission of more than one milliwatt
G0B – Station safety: electrical shock, grounding, fusing, interlocks, and wiring; antenna and tower safety
G0B01 (A)
Which wire or wires in a four-conductor 240 VAC circuit should be attached to fuses or circuit breakers?
A. Only the hot wires
G0B02 (C)
According to the National Electrical Code, what is the minimum wire size that may be used safely for wiring with a 20-ampere circuit breaker?
C. AWG number 12
G0B03 (D)
Which size of fuse or circuit breaker would be appropriate to use with a circuit that uses AWG number 14 wiring?
D. 15 amperes
G0B04 (B)
Where should the station’s lightning protection ground system be located?
B. Outside the building
G0B05 (B)
Which of the following conditions will cause a ground fault circuit interrupter (GFCI) to disconnect AC power?
B. Current flowing from one or more of the hot wires directly to ground
G0B06 (C)
Which of the following is covered by the National Electrical Code?
C. Electrical safety of the station
G0B07 (B)
Which of these choices should be observed when climbing a tower using a safety harness?
B. Confirm that the harness is rated for the weight of the climber and that it is within its allowable service life
G0B08 (B)
What should be done before climbing a tower that supports electrically powered devices?
B. Make sure all circuits that supply power to the tower are locked out and tagged
G0B09 (A)
Which of the following is true of an emergency generator installation?
A. The generator should be operated in a well-ventilated area
G0B10 (A)
Which of the following is a danger from lead-tin solder?
A. Lead can contaminate food if hands are not washed carefully after handling the solder
G0B11 (D)
Which of the following is required for lightning protection ground rods?
D. They must be bonded together with all other grounds
G0B12 (C)
What is the purpose of a power supply interlock?
C. To ensure that dangerous voltages are removed if the cabinet is opened
G0B13 (A)
Where should lightning arrestors be located?
A. Where the feed lines enter the building